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#السؤال_111_هل_تجسد_الرب_في_الجسد
1 Timothy 3:16
Did God become manifest in flesh?
1 Timothy 3:16
The _Felony_of_Forgery 1 Timothy 3:16. Another Biblical Corruption!!
#PROVERBS 30:5 - Do not add to His words Or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar.
1 Timothy 3:16, Did God become manifest in flesh?
🍂1 Timothy 3: 16 (KJV)
"And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: "God" was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."
Compare
🍂1 Timothy 3:16 ( NIV)
Beyond all question, the mystery from which true godliness springs is great: "He" appeared in the flesh, was vindicated by the Spirit, was seen by angels, was preached among the nations, was believed on in the world, was taken up in glory.
Although the above verse reads as “God was manifest in flesh”, majority of Trinitarian Bible Translations, read it as: “He was manifest in flesh.” A lot of Scholars agree that the word “God” was not in the original text, but was added by later scribes. The earliest and best manuscripts does not have the word “God” in it but rather “He”, “who” or “which.” Furthermore, even modern (Trinitarian) Bible Translations disagree with the KJV and few other translations, for putting the word “God” in 1 Timothy 3: 16.
--------
How Westcott, Fenton and Tischendorf three well-respected Scholars, when they read the original Codex Alexandrinus for 1 Timothy 3:16, they did not see the word “God” in it. Instead they seen the Greek word ὃς which means “he” or “who.”
Scholars commenting on 1 Timothy 3:16.
1. John Albert Bengel:
“Theos of the rec. Text has none of the oldest MSS. In its favour, no version as early as the seventh century: and as to the fathers, ex. Gr. Cyril of Alex. And Chrysostom, quoted for theos, sec Tregelles on the printed text of N. T., in which he shows these fathers are misquoted. Theodoret, how ever does support it. Liberatus, Victor Tununensis (both of 6th cent.), affirm that Macedonius, under the Emperor Anastasius, changed OC into theos in order to support Nestorianism. AC corrected, G, read OC. So Memph. And Theb. The old Latin fg and Vulg. Have quod, referring to…, taken as a personal designation for the antecedent. The Syr. Peschito, and in fact all versions older than the seventh cent., have the relative NOT theos. D (A) corrected, alone of the uncials, favours O. The silence of the fathers of the fourth cent., though theos would have furnished them with a strong argument, is conclusive against it.” [1]
2. Anthony Buzzard:
“Another example of a text which was altered is 1 Timothy 3:16. This verse reads in the KJV: “God was manifested in the flesh .” Modern versions have corrected the word “God” to “He who.” The alteration of an original “He who” (in Greek Oj) was very sneakily accomplished when some scribes changed the O (omicron) into a q (theta) giving qj (theta sigma). The reading THS was an abbreviated form of the Greek word theos, God. All that had to be done was to draw a little line across the middle of the O to produce the Greek letter theta (q). Then the text was made to sound Trinitarian and to support the Incarnation: “God was manifested in the flesh.” “He who” (O j) was made to read “God” (qj).” [2]
3. Isaac Newton:
“All the Churches for the first four or five hundred years, and the authors of all the ancient versions, Jerome, as well as the rest read ‘ Great is the mystery of godliness, which was manifested in the flesh.’” [3]
4. Bart D. Ehrman:
“The passage in question, 1 Tim. 3:16, had long been used by advocates of orthodox theology to support the view that the New Testament itself calls Jesus God. For the text, in most manuscripts, refers to Christ as “God made manifest in the flesh, and justified in the Spirit.” As I pointed out in chapter 3, most manuscripts abbreviate sacred names (the socalled nomina sacra), and that is the case here as well, where the Greek word God (QEOS) is abbreviated in two letters, theta and sigma (QS),
1 Timothy 3:16
Did God become manifest in flesh?
1 Timothy 3:16
The _Felony_of_Forgery 1 Timothy 3:16. Another Biblical Corruption!!
#PROVERBS 30:5 - Do not add to His words Or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar.
1 Timothy 3:16, Did God become manifest in flesh?
🍂1 Timothy 3: 16 (KJV)
"And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: "God" was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."
Compare
🍂1 Timothy 3:16 ( NIV)
Beyond all question, the mystery from which true godliness springs is great: "He" appeared in the flesh, was vindicated by the Spirit, was seen by angels, was preached among the nations, was believed on in the world, was taken up in glory.
Although the above verse reads as “God was manifest in flesh”, majority of Trinitarian Bible Translations, read it as: “He was manifest in flesh.” A lot of Scholars agree that the word “God” was not in the original text, but was added by later scribes. The earliest and best manuscripts does not have the word “God” in it but rather “He”, “who” or “which.” Furthermore, even modern (Trinitarian) Bible Translations disagree with the KJV and few other translations, for putting the word “God” in 1 Timothy 3: 16.
--------
How Westcott, Fenton and Tischendorf three well-respected Scholars, when they read the original Codex Alexandrinus for 1 Timothy 3:16, they did not see the word “God” in it. Instead they seen the Greek word ὃς which means “he” or “who.”
Scholars commenting on 1 Timothy 3:16.
1. John Albert Bengel:
“Theos of the rec. Text has none of the oldest MSS. In its favour, no version as early as the seventh century: and as to the fathers, ex. Gr. Cyril of Alex. And Chrysostom, quoted for theos, sec Tregelles on the printed text of N. T., in which he shows these fathers are misquoted. Theodoret, how ever does support it. Liberatus, Victor Tununensis (both of 6th cent.), affirm that Macedonius, under the Emperor Anastasius, changed OC into theos in order to support Nestorianism. AC corrected, G, read OC. So Memph. And Theb. The old Latin fg and Vulg. Have quod, referring to…, taken as a personal designation for the antecedent. The Syr. Peschito, and in fact all versions older than the seventh cent., have the relative NOT theos. D (A) corrected, alone of the uncials, favours O. The silence of the fathers of the fourth cent., though theos would have furnished them with a strong argument, is conclusive against it.” [1]
2. Anthony Buzzard:
“Another example of a text which was altered is 1 Timothy 3:16. This verse reads in the KJV: “God was manifested in the flesh .” Modern versions have corrected the word “God” to “He who.” The alteration of an original “He who” (in Greek Oj) was very sneakily accomplished when some scribes changed the O (omicron) into a q (theta) giving qj (theta sigma). The reading THS was an abbreviated form of the Greek word theos, God. All that had to be done was to draw a little line across the middle of the O to produce the Greek letter theta (q). Then the text was made to sound Trinitarian and to support the Incarnation: “God was manifested in the flesh.” “He who” (O j) was made to read “God” (qj).” [2]
3. Isaac Newton:
“All the Churches for the first four or five hundred years, and the authors of all the ancient versions, Jerome, as well as the rest read ‘ Great is the mystery of godliness, which was manifested in the flesh.’” [3]
4. Bart D. Ehrman:
“The passage in question, 1 Tim. 3:16, had long been used by advocates of orthodox theology to support the view that the New Testament itself calls Jesus God. For the text, in most manuscripts, refers to Christ as “God made manifest in the flesh, and justified in the Spirit.” As I pointed out in chapter 3, most manuscripts abbreviate sacred names (the socalled nomina sacra), and that is the case here as well, where the Greek word God (QEOS) is abbreviated in two letters, theta and sigma (QS),
with a line drawn over the top to indicate that it is an abbreviation. What Wettstein noticed in examining Codex Alexandrinus was that the line over the top had been drawn in a different ink from the surrounding words, and so appeared to be from a later hand (i.e., written by a later scribe). Moreover, the horizontal line in the middle of the first letter, Q, was not actually a part of the letter but was a line that had bled through from the other side of the old vellum. In other words, rather than being the abbreviation (thetasigma) For “God” (QS), the word was actually an omicron and a sigma (OS), a different word altogether, which simply means ‘who.’ The original reading of the manuscript thus did not speak of Christ as ‘God made manifest in the flesh’ but of Christ “who was made manifest in the flesh.” According to the ancient testimony of the Codex Alexandrinus, Christ is no longer explicitly called God in this passage.” [4]
References:
[1] John Albert Bengel, Gnomon of the New Testament, page 268
[2] Anthony Buzzard, Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian: A call to return to the creed of Jesus, page 257
[3] Isaac Newton, Historical Account Of Two Notable Corruptions Of Scripture: In A Letter To A Friend , page 58
[4] Bart D. Ehrman, Misquoting Jesus, page 113
References:
[1] John Albert Bengel, Gnomon of the New Testament, page 268
[2] Anthony Buzzard, Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian: A call to return to the creed of Jesus, page 257
[3] Isaac Newton, Historical Account Of Two Notable Corruptions Of Scripture: In A Letter To A Friend , page 58
[4] Bart D. Ehrman, Misquoting Jesus, page 113
1 timothy 3:16 another Bible corruption, in the original manuscripts the word read there "He who" not "God"
In KJV said "God manifest in the flesh"
------
In NIV said "He appeared in the flesh"
------
In NIV said "He appeared in the flesh"
Forwarded from Question and Answer (Wafaa Fawzi)
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#السؤال_112_شبهة_ملك_اليمين
How to reply to the suspicions concerning woman slavery(captives)?
1_ In the bible
In reply to the suspicions concerning women slavery (female captives)
Deuteronomy 20:10-18 New International Version (NIV)
10 When you march up to attack a city, make its people an offer of peace. 11 If they accept and open their gates, all the people in it shall be subject to forced labor and shall work for you. 12 If they refuse to make peace and they engage you in battle, lay siege to that city. 13 When the Lord your God delivers it into your hand, put to the sword all the men in it. 14 As for the women, the children, the livestock and everything else in the city, you may take these as plunder for yourselves. And you may use the plunder the Lord your God gives you from your enemies. 15 This is how you are to treat all the cities that are at a distance from you and do not belong to the nations nearby.
Based on the heavenly law set by God in the Bible, " As for the women, the children, the livestock and everything else in the city, you may take these as plunder for yourselves. And you may use the plunder the Lord your God gives you from your enemies."
This law is set by God, so how can you Christian brother/sister object to it?
The Ten Commandments order us to respect slaves (captives) .
Exodus 20:17 King James Version (KJV)
17 Thou shalt not covet thy neighbour's house, thou shalt not covet thy neighbour's wife, nor his manservant, nor his maidservant, nor his ox, nor his ass, nor any thing that is thy neighbour's.
Although the Christian law orders us to worship the ONE God and not to carve an idol for us, many people violate these commandments. What confirms the continuity of the legislation of female slaves (captives) in the Bible , is the order of the Lord himself, "Don’t desire your relative's woman, not only this, but also don’t desire your relatives maidservent (captives).!!
Deuteronomy 21:10-14 New International Version (NIV) .
Marrying a Captive Woman
10 When you go to war against your enemies and the Lord your God delivers them into your hands and you take captives, 11 if you notice among the captives a beautiful woman and are attracted to her, you may take her as your wife. 12 Bring her into your home and have her shave her head, trim her nails 13 and put aside the clothes she was wearing when captured. After she has lived in your house and mourned her father and mother for a full month, then you may go to her and be her husband and she shall be your wife. 14 If you are not pleased with her, let her go wherever she wishes. You must not sell her or treat her as a slave, since you have dishonored her .
The Lord has inspired this to Moses: a complete law about captivity and captive women!! The interpretations confirm the existence of captive women and not only that, but a man must shave her head, trim her nails and take off her clothes so that her appearance becomes very bad and then marry her without the permission of her parents and she has no rights.
How to reply to the suspicions concerning woman slavery(captives)?
1_ In the bible
In reply to the suspicions concerning women slavery (female captives)
Deuteronomy 20:10-18 New International Version (NIV)
10 When you march up to attack a city, make its people an offer of peace. 11 If they accept and open their gates, all the people in it shall be subject to forced labor and shall work for you. 12 If they refuse to make peace and they engage you in battle, lay siege to that city. 13 When the Lord your God delivers it into your hand, put to the sword all the men in it. 14 As for the women, the children, the livestock and everything else in the city, you may take these as plunder for yourselves. And you may use the plunder the Lord your God gives you from your enemies. 15 This is how you are to treat all the cities that are at a distance from you and do not belong to the nations nearby.
Based on the heavenly law set by God in the Bible, " As for the women, the children, the livestock and everything else in the city, you may take these as plunder for yourselves. And you may use the plunder the Lord your God gives you from your enemies."
This law is set by God, so how can you Christian brother/sister object to it?
The Ten Commandments order us to respect slaves (captives) .
Exodus 20:17 King James Version (KJV)
17 Thou shalt not covet thy neighbour's house, thou shalt not covet thy neighbour's wife, nor his manservant, nor his maidservant, nor his ox, nor his ass, nor any thing that is thy neighbour's.
Although the Christian law orders us to worship the ONE God and not to carve an idol for us, many people violate these commandments. What confirms the continuity of the legislation of female slaves (captives) in the Bible , is the order of the Lord himself, "Don’t desire your relative's woman, not only this, but also don’t desire your relatives maidservent (captives).!!
Deuteronomy 21:10-14 New International Version (NIV) .
Marrying a Captive Woman
10 When you go to war against your enemies and the Lord your God delivers them into your hands and you take captives, 11 if you notice among the captives a beautiful woman and are attracted to her, you may take her as your wife. 12 Bring her into your home and have her shave her head, trim her nails 13 and put aside the clothes she was wearing when captured. After she has lived in your house and mourned her father and mother for a full month, then you may go to her and be her husband and she shall be your wife. 14 If you are not pleased with her, let her go wherever she wishes. You must not sell her or treat her as a slave, since you have dishonored her .
The Lord has inspired this to Moses: a complete law about captivity and captive women!! The interpretations confirm the existence of captive women and not only that, but a man must shave her head, trim her nails and take off her clothes so that her appearance becomes very bad and then marry her without the permission of her parents and she has no rights.
2_In Islam
Imam Bukhari (2547)
Narrated Abu Musa Al-Ash`ari: The Prophet said, "He who has a slave-girl and teaches her good manners and improves her education and then manumits and marries her, will get a double reward; and any slave who observes Allah's right and his master's right will get a double reward."
You see; that’s how Islam set the course of emancipating slaves. They should definitely be well treated. Also, educating female captives and marrying them, after emancipation is considered an act of charity, which would earn one great reward. Not only that. Islam further puts an end to the habit of using derogative names of “slaves” or “servants”. In Islam, man must not show servitude to anyone besides Allah the Almighty. So it was stipulated that the captives should be addressed by “fatah” (boy) or “fatat” (girl). Besides, the act of emancipating slaves used to be a competitive work among the Prophet’s Companions, for it was highly recommended by Islam and was considered an act of worship.
Abu Huraira reported Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) as saying:
None of you should say: My bondman and my slave-girl, for all of you are the bondmen of Allah, and all your women are the slave-girls of Allah; but say: My servant, my girl, and my young man and my young girl.
Reference : Sahih Muslim 2249 a
Islam treated female slaves more kindly in their enslavement than other cultures did. Their honour was not considered to be permissible to anyone by a way of prostitution, which was the fate of female prisoners of war in most cases. Rather Islam made them the property of their masters alone, and forbidden anyone else to also have an intercourse with them.
Imam Bukhari (2547)
Narrated Abu Musa Al-Ash`ari: The Prophet said, "He who has a slave-girl and teaches her good manners and improves her education and then manumits and marries her, will get a double reward; and any slave who observes Allah's right and his master's right will get a double reward."
You see; that’s how Islam set the course of emancipating slaves. They should definitely be well treated. Also, educating female captives and marrying them, after emancipation is considered an act of charity, which would earn one great reward. Not only that. Islam further puts an end to the habit of using derogative names of “slaves” or “servants”. In Islam, man must not show servitude to anyone besides Allah the Almighty. So it was stipulated that the captives should be addressed by “fatah” (boy) or “fatat” (girl). Besides, the act of emancipating slaves used to be a competitive work among the Prophet’s Companions, for it was highly recommended by Islam and was considered an act of worship.
Abu Huraira reported Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) as saying:
None of you should say: My bondman and my slave-girl, for all of you are the bondmen of Allah, and all your women are the slave-girls of Allah; but say: My servant, my girl, and my young man and my young girl.
Reference : Sahih Muslim 2249 a
Islam treated female slaves more kindly in their enslavement than other cultures did. Their honour was not considered to be permissible to anyone by a way of prostitution, which was the fate of female prisoners of war in most cases. Rather Islam made them the property of their masters alone, and forbidden anyone else to also have an intercourse with them.
Forwarded from Question and Answer (Wafaa Fawzi)
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#السؤال_113_موقف_الإسلام_من_عبادة_الأسلاف
Islams prespective on ancestor worshipping.
🍂The worship of ancestors:
During his life, Prophet Mohammad (PBUH) denounced every form of Shirk, the act of associating anything or anybody with God Almighty in His attributes and powers, a sin considered unforgivable in Islamic theology.
Indeed, Allah does not forgive association with Him, but He forgives what is less than that for whom He wills. And he who associates others with Allah has certainly gone far astray. (Quran 4:116)
If not repented during the sinner’s earthly life. Because ancestor worship and one's association with their graves was a common religious practice in pre-Islamic Arabia, Prophet Mohammad, even on his deathbed, warned Muslims not to imitate Jews and Christians who earlier had venerated the graves of their prophets and saints (Sahih Muslim, Mishkat).
But before we proceed with our inquiry into this important topic, let us first review a few terms, especially in the context of ancient cultures. By definition ancestor worship is the adoration or payment of homage to a deceased parent or ancestor. In this type of worship, usually reserved for deities, a devotee claimed spiritual relationship to the deceased. One can easily find several examples of deification of ancestors in Indian, Mesopotamian, and Egyptian mythologies. In such cultures it is quite conceivable that even a “living” ruler could easily proclaim divinity without much problem, as was done by the Pharaoh saying to Moses and his own courtiers.
"And said, 'I am your most exalted lord'".(Quran 79:24)
Grave worship, much like ancestor worship, involves adoration of the deceased with a belief that certain departed spirits must be fed or honored. With this, they could become channels of information with the spiritual world (necromancy) and intercessors with God Almighty. Excessive reverence and love for the deceased and a belief in afterlife in the worldly grave was apparently the reason behind such practices. It is important to realize that throughout human history idols were actually made in remembrance of those departed “saintly” souls. To make us understand the Quranic verse in which the adversaries of Prophet Noah said to their fellow compatriots,
'And said, 'Never leave your gods and never leave Wadd or Suwa' or Yaghuth and Ya'uq and Nasr'.(71:23)
Abdullah Bin Abbas (RA) explained that they were the saintly men who followed Noah’s monotheistic religion and when they died, people associated themselves with their dead cult, made idols in their resemblance, and started worshipping them (Sahih Bukhari; Commentary of Chapter Noah from the Holy Quran).
#Allah alone regulates the affairs of the universe such as giving and taking life, sending the rain down, giving sustenance, alternating the night and the day, giving honour to whom He wishes and humble whom He wishes
_You say you take these ancestors as connection between you and God , so who was the connection between the first man and God ?!!!
I think there was no African religion when Almighty God created the first man!!!
So, what do you think he worshiped!!!?
Did he worship his ancestors (like some Africans do)?!!
Of Course he didn't have ancestors at that time.!! 😃
Or did he worship his Creator without mediators ?
Direct worship .
Setting up intermediaries between a person and #Allah is Kufr (disbelief):
calling upon them and seeking their intercession and depending upon them. Those who do this are taking "associates" with Allah and this is #Shirk.
In Quran
Quote from the Holy Qur'an: An-Nisaa (4:48)
Indeed, Allah does not forgive association with Him, but He forgives what is less than that for whom He wills. And he who associates others with Allah has certainly fabricated a tremendous sin.
Islams prespective on ancestor worshipping.
🍂The worship of ancestors:
During his life, Prophet Mohammad (PBUH) denounced every form of Shirk, the act of associating anything or anybody with God Almighty in His attributes and powers, a sin considered unforgivable in Islamic theology.
Indeed, Allah does not forgive association with Him, but He forgives what is less than that for whom He wills. And he who associates others with Allah has certainly gone far astray. (Quran 4:116)
If not repented during the sinner’s earthly life. Because ancestor worship and one's association with their graves was a common religious practice in pre-Islamic Arabia, Prophet Mohammad, even on his deathbed, warned Muslims not to imitate Jews and Christians who earlier had venerated the graves of their prophets and saints (Sahih Muslim, Mishkat).
But before we proceed with our inquiry into this important topic, let us first review a few terms, especially in the context of ancient cultures. By definition ancestor worship is the adoration or payment of homage to a deceased parent or ancestor. In this type of worship, usually reserved for deities, a devotee claimed spiritual relationship to the deceased. One can easily find several examples of deification of ancestors in Indian, Mesopotamian, and Egyptian mythologies. In such cultures it is quite conceivable that even a “living” ruler could easily proclaim divinity without much problem, as was done by the Pharaoh saying to Moses and his own courtiers.
"And said, 'I am your most exalted lord'".(Quran 79:24)
Grave worship, much like ancestor worship, involves adoration of the deceased with a belief that certain departed spirits must be fed or honored. With this, they could become channels of information with the spiritual world (necromancy) and intercessors with God Almighty. Excessive reverence and love for the deceased and a belief in afterlife in the worldly grave was apparently the reason behind such practices. It is important to realize that throughout human history idols were actually made in remembrance of those departed “saintly” souls. To make us understand the Quranic verse in which the adversaries of Prophet Noah said to their fellow compatriots,
'And said, 'Never leave your gods and never leave Wadd or Suwa' or Yaghuth and Ya'uq and Nasr'.(71:23)
Abdullah Bin Abbas (RA) explained that they were the saintly men who followed Noah’s monotheistic religion and when they died, people associated themselves with their dead cult, made idols in their resemblance, and started worshipping them (Sahih Bukhari; Commentary of Chapter Noah from the Holy Quran).
#Allah alone regulates the affairs of the universe such as giving and taking life, sending the rain down, giving sustenance, alternating the night and the day, giving honour to whom He wishes and humble whom He wishes
_You say you take these ancestors as connection between you and God , so who was the connection between the first man and God ?!!!
I think there was no African religion when Almighty God created the first man!!!
So, what do you think he worshiped!!!?
Did he worship his ancestors (like some Africans do)?!!
Of Course he didn't have ancestors at that time.!! 😃
Or did he worship his Creator without mediators ?
Direct worship .
Setting up intermediaries between a person and #Allah is Kufr (disbelief):
calling upon them and seeking their intercession and depending upon them. Those who do this are taking "associates" with Allah and this is #Shirk.
In Quran
Quote from the Holy Qur'an: An-Nisaa (4:48)
Indeed, Allah does not forgive association with Him, but He forgives what is less than that for whom He wills. And he who associates others with Allah has certainly fabricated a tremendous sin.
Forwarded from Question and Answer (Wafaa Fawzi)
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#السؤال_114_لماذا_حفظ_الله_القرآن_ولم_يحفظ_الكتب_السابقة
🍂Why did Allah preserve the Quran and allow His earlier books of divine revelation to be changed or lost?
The answer to that question lies in the following three facts:
The earlier prophets and their books were sent to a particular people in particular periods of history. Once the period ended, a new prophet was sent with a new book to replace the previous book. So, it was not necessary that these books be preserved by Allah. The preservation of the earlier books was left up to the people as a test for them. Thus, when the people went astray, they changed what was written in the books which their prophets brought in order to make allowable the things which were forbidden to them. In that way, all of the earlier books of revelation became either changed or lost.
Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) was the last prophet whom Allah sent, and he was not sent to particular people or a particular time. He was sent to all of mankind until the end of the world. Allah said in the Quran,
"I have only sent you (Muhammad) as a giver of glad tidings and a warner to all mankind, but most men do not understand." [Noble Quran 34:28]
Thus, his book of revelation, the Quran, had to be specially preserved from any form of change or loss so that it would be available to all the generations of man until the last day of the world.
The Quran was the main miracle given to Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) to prove that he was a true prophet of Allah . So, the Quran had to be saved to prove to the later generations that Muhammad (peace be upon him) was really the last prophet of Allah. All of the false prophets who came after Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) brought books which they claimed to be revealed from Allah, but none of them have the miraculous ability to be memorized by thousands, nor have they improved on the message of the Quran. The significance of the Quran's preservation is that Islam has been kept in its original purity because of it. Humanity can always return to the sources of Islam no matter what people may have added or forgotten in time. All of the essential principles of Islam are to be found in the Quran. Consequently, the preservation of the Quran meant the preservation of Islam in its final form. The loss of the Gospel of Jesus means that Christians can never return to the true teachings of Prophet Jesus except by accepting Islam. Similarly, the original Torah was lost when Solomon's Temple in Jerusalem was destroyed by the Babylonians. Thus, the Jews cannot return to the pure teachings of Prophet Moses except by following Islam. It is only in Islam that the pure teachings of the prophets have been preserved without any change. That is why Allah said in the Quran,
"Verily, the only acceptable religion to Allah is Islam."
[Noble Quran 3:19]
🍂Why did Allah preserve the Quran and allow His earlier books of divine revelation to be changed or lost?
The answer to that question lies in the following three facts:
The earlier prophets and their books were sent to a particular people in particular periods of history. Once the period ended, a new prophet was sent with a new book to replace the previous book. So, it was not necessary that these books be preserved by Allah. The preservation of the earlier books was left up to the people as a test for them. Thus, when the people went astray, they changed what was written in the books which their prophets brought in order to make allowable the things which were forbidden to them. In that way, all of the earlier books of revelation became either changed or lost.
Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) was the last prophet whom Allah sent, and he was not sent to particular people or a particular time. He was sent to all of mankind until the end of the world. Allah said in the Quran,
"I have only sent you (Muhammad) as a giver of glad tidings and a warner to all mankind, but most men do not understand." [Noble Quran 34:28]
Thus, his book of revelation, the Quran, had to be specially preserved from any form of change or loss so that it would be available to all the generations of man until the last day of the world.
The Quran was the main miracle given to Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) to prove that he was a true prophet of Allah . So, the Quran had to be saved to prove to the later generations that Muhammad (peace be upon him) was really the last prophet of Allah. All of the false prophets who came after Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) brought books which they claimed to be revealed from Allah, but none of them have the miraculous ability to be memorized by thousands, nor have they improved on the message of the Quran. The significance of the Quran's preservation is that Islam has been kept in its original purity because of it. Humanity can always return to the sources of Islam no matter what people may have added or forgotten in time. All of the essential principles of Islam are to be found in the Quran. Consequently, the preservation of the Quran meant the preservation of Islam in its final form. The loss of the Gospel of Jesus means that Christians can never return to the true teachings of Prophet Jesus except by accepting Islam. Similarly, the original Torah was lost when Solomon's Temple in Jerusalem was destroyed by the Babylonians. Thus, the Jews cannot return to the pure teachings of Prophet Moses except by following Islam. It is only in Islam that the pure teachings of the prophets have been preserved without any change. That is why Allah said in the Quran,
"Verily, the only acceptable religion to Allah is Islam."
[Noble Quran 3:19]
Forwarded from Question and Answer (Wafaa Fawzi)
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#السؤال_115_يزعم_المسيحيون_أن_عيسي_هو_الرب.( Corinthians 8:6)
Christians claim that Corinthians 8:6 is telling that Jesus was God .
Paul, believed to be the author of some thirteen or fourteen letters in the Bible, also believed that Jesus is not God. For Paul, God first created Jesus, then used Jesus as the agent by which to create the rest of creation (see Colossians 1:15 and 1 Corinthians 8:6). Similar ideas are found in the letter to the Hebrews, and also in the Gospel and Letters of John composed some seventy years after Jesus. In all of these writings, however, Jesus is still a creature of God and is therefore forever subservient to God (see 1 Corinthians 15:28).
Christians claim that Corinthians 8:6 is telling that Jesus was God .
Paul, believed to be the author of some thirteen or fourteen letters in the Bible, also believed that Jesus is not God. For Paul, God first created Jesus, then used Jesus as the agent by which to create the rest of creation (see Colossians 1:15 and 1 Corinthians 8:6). Similar ideas are found in the letter to the Hebrews, and also in the Gospel and Letters of John composed some seventy years after Jesus. In all of these writings, however, Jesus is still a creature of God and is therefore forever subservient to God (see 1 Corinthians 15:28).