#السؤال_السابع_والثمانون_بما_أن_عيسي_هو_المولود_الأول_لكل_الخليقة_فهو_الله.
#Jesus_was_part-of_God’s_creation
Colossians 1:15 calls Jesus “the #firstborn of all creation.” Scholars disagree on what this phrase means, but that is primarily because the doctrine of the Trinity obscures its simple meaning. Trinitarian doctrine states that Jesus is “eternal,” but if that is true then he cannot be the firstborn “of all creation,” because that would make him part of the creation—Jesus would be a created being. But the simple reading of Colossians 1:15 seems clear: Jesus is a created being. The BDAG Greek-English lexicon [entry under “creation”] explains the Greek word translated “creation” as “that which is created…of individual things or beings created, creature.” Not only was Jesus a #created being, he is also called the “#firstborn” from the dead because he was the first one in God’s creation who was raised from the dead to everlasting life—a point that is also made in #Colossians 1:18 and #Revelation 1:5.
#Jesus_was_like_Adam
Adam, the first man, was fully human and by his sin brought sin into the world. Jesus is called the “last Adam” (1 Cor. 15:45), but it seems that designation would not be appropriate if Jesus was not fully human in the same way that Adam was. Also, Adam is called a “type” of Jesus (Rom. 5:14). The word translated as “type” in many English versions is the translation of the Greek word #Tupos (5179 τύπος), which can be defined as “a type, pattern, model, or example of something else.” Although the KJV translates #Tupos as “figure,” most of the more modern versions say “pattern” (NIV), “prototype” (HCSB), or “type” (ESV, NAB, NASB). Adam was a type, prototype, or pattern of Jesus because he was fully human and began without a sin nature—and Jesus was the same: fully human and made without a sin nature. The reason that no other human male after Adam could be a “type” of Jesus.But if Jesus was 100% man and 100% God, then Adam could not be a “type” of Jesus, because Adam did not have a “God-nature.”
#God is eternal, but Jesus had a beginning
God was not born; He is eternal. In contrast to the eternal God, Christ is “begotten,” that is, born. Jesus Christ had a beginning. Jesus is never called “God the Son” in the Bible, but he is called the “Son of God” more than 50 times, and a “son” has a beginning. The very fact that Jesus is the “Son of God” shows he had a beginning. Trinitarian doctrine denies this, and #invents the phrase “eternally begotten.” But “eternally begotten” is #not in the Bible, it was invented to help explain the Trinity but is actually a nonsensical phrase; the words are placed together but they cancel each other out. “Eternal” means without beginning or end, whereas something that is “begotten,” by definition, has a beginning.
We cannot approach the Bible with wisdom and “reason together” with God (#Isaiah 1:18), if we must invent and use non-biblical phrases to support our theology. Also, additional evidence that Jesus had a beginning is provided in verses such as #Matthew 1:18, which speaks of the “beginning” of Jesus Christ, and #Colossians 1:15, which says that Jesus is #part of God’s creation. The Bible calls Jesus the “Son” of God for the simple reason that he #had a beginning. Jesus had been part of God’s plan since the foundation of the world, but he began his actual life when God “fathered” him and Mary conceived him in her womb.
Since Jesus is created according to this verse. Therefore Jesus can't be God because Bible tells us anything that created cannot be God!
Exodus 20:4 - Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness [of any thing] that [is] in heaven above, or that [is] in the earth beneath, or that [is] in the water under the earth:
#Please_note : graven image means that anything that created:
Paul, believed to be the author of some thirteen or fourteen letters in the Bible, also believed that Jesus is not God. For Paul, God first created Jesus, then used Jesus as the agent by which to create the rest of creation
#Jesus_was_part-of_God’s_creation
Colossians 1:15 calls Jesus “the #firstborn of all creation.” Scholars disagree on what this phrase means, but that is primarily because the doctrine of the Trinity obscures its simple meaning. Trinitarian doctrine states that Jesus is “eternal,” but if that is true then he cannot be the firstborn “of all creation,” because that would make him part of the creation—Jesus would be a created being. But the simple reading of Colossians 1:15 seems clear: Jesus is a created being. The BDAG Greek-English lexicon [entry under “creation”] explains the Greek word translated “creation” as “that which is created…of individual things or beings created, creature.” Not only was Jesus a #created being, he is also called the “#firstborn” from the dead because he was the first one in God’s creation who was raised from the dead to everlasting life—a point that is also made in #Colossians 1:18 and #Revelation 1:5.
#Jesus_was_like_Adam
Adam, the first man, was fully human and by his sin brought sin into the world. Jesus is called the “last Adam” (1 Cor. 15:45), but it seems that designation would not be appropriate if Jesus was not fully human in the same way that Adam was. Also, Adam is called a “type” of Jesus (Rom. 5:14). The word translated as “type” in many English versions is the translation of the Greek word #Tupos (5179 τύπος), which can be defined as “a type, pattern, model, or example of something else.” Although the KJV translates #Tupos as “figure,” most of the more modern versions say “pattern” (NIV), “prototype” (HCSB), or “type” (ESV, NAB, NASB). Adam was a type, prototype, or pattern of Jesus because he was fully human and began without a sin nature—and Jesus was the same: fully human and made without a sin nature. The reason that no other human male after Adam could be a “type” of Jesus.But if Jesus was 100% man and 100% God, then Adam could not be a “type” of Jesus, because Adam did not have a “God-nature.”
#God is eternal, but Jesus had a beginning
God was not born; He is eternal. In contrast to the eternal God, Christ is “begotten,” that is, born. Jesus Christ had a beginning. Jesus is never called “God the Son” in the Bible, but he is called the “Son of God” more than 50 times, and a “son” has a beginning. The very fact that Jesus is the “Son of God” shows he had a beginning. Trinitarian doctrine denies this, and #invents the phrase “eternally begotten.” But “eternally begotten” is #not in the Bible, it was invented to help explain the Trinity but is actually a nonsensical phrase; the words are placed together but they cancel each other out. “Eternal” means without beginning or end, whereas something that is “begotten,” by definition, has a beginning.
We cannot approach the Bible with wisdom and “reason together” with God (#Isaiah 1:18), if we must invent and use non-biblical phrases to support our theology. Also, additional evidence that Jesus had a beginning is provided in verses such as #Matthew 1:18, which speaks of the “beginning” of Jesus Christ, and #Colossians 1:15, which says that Jesus is #part of God’s creation. The Bible calls Jesus the “Son” of God for the simple reason that he #had a beginning. Jesus had been part of God’s plan since the foundation of the world, but he began his actual life when God “fathered” him and Mary conceived him in her womb.
Since Jesus is created according to this verse. Therefore Jesus can't be God because Bible tells us anything that created cannot be God!
Exodus 20:4 - Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness [of any thing] that [is] in heaven above, or that [is] in the earth beneath, or that [is] in the water under the earth:
#Please_note : graven image means that anything that created:
Paul, believed to be the author of some thirteen or fourteen letters in the Bible, also believed that Jesus is not God. For Paul, God first created Jesus, then used Jesus as the agent by which to create the rest of creation
(see Colossians 1:15 and 1 Corinthians 8:6). Similar ideas are found in the letter to the Hebrews, and also in the Gospel and Letters of John composed some seventy years after Jesus. In all of these writings, however, Jesus is still a creature of God and is therefore forever subservient to God (see 1 Corinthians 15:28).
#Romans 1:21-23
For although they knew God, they neither glorified him as #God nor gave thanks to him, but their thinking became futile and their foolish hearts were darkened. Although they claimed to be wise, they became fools and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images made to look like a mortal
human being (#Jesus) and birds(#Dove) and animals( #Lamb) and reptiles.
#Romans 1:21-23
For although they knew God, they neither glorified him as #God nor gave thanks to him, but their thinking became futile and their foolish hearts were darkened. Although they claimed to be wise, they became fools and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images made to look like a mortal
human being (#Jesus) and birds(#Dove) and animals( #Lamb) and reptiles.
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#السؤال_الثامن_والثمانون_هل_عيسي_في_القرآن_هو_jesus_في_الإنجيل.
Is Eissa in Quran, Jesus in Bible?
🌸Translating the name Jesus into non Semitic languages complicated things. There was no “J” in any language until the fourteenth century , so consequently, when the name Jesus was translated into Greek, it became Iesous, and in Latin, Iesus. Later, the “I” and “J” were used interchangeably, and finally the name transitioned into English as Jesus. The final “S” on the end is indicative of the Greek language where all male names end in “S”.
1. Aramaic
Eeshu
2. Arabic
Eissa
3. Hebrew
Yeshua
4. Greek
Iesous
5. English
Jesus
WHO IS EISSA?
Eissa is Jesus. Perhaps because of the difference in pronunciation, many people may not be aware that when they hear a Muslim talking about Eissa , he is actually talking about Prophet Jesus.
The spelling of Eissa may take many forms – Isa, Esa, Essa, and Eissa.
The Arabic language is written in Arabic characters, thus any transliteration system tries to reproduce the phonetic sound. No matter what the spelling, all indicate Jesus, the Messenger of God.
Jesus and his people spoke Aramaic, a language from the Semitic family.
Spoken by more than 300 million people throughout the Middle East, North Africa and the Horn of Africa, Semitic languages include, among others, Arabic and Hebrew.
The use of the word Eissa is actually a closer translation of the Aramaic word for Jesus – Eeshu. In Hebrew this translates to Yeshua.
Is Eissa in Quran, Jesus in Bible?
🌸Translating the name Jesus into non Semitic languages complicated things. There was no “J” in any language until the fourteenth century , so consequently, when the name Jesus was translated into Greek, it became Iesous, and in Latin, Iesus. Later, the “I” and “J” were used interchangeably, and finally the name transitioned into English as Jesus. The final “S” on the end is indicative of the Greek language where all male names end in “S”.
1. Aramaic
Eeshu
2. Arabic
Eissa
3. Hebrew
Yeshua
4. Greek
Iesous
5. English
Jesus
WHO IS EISSA?
Eissa is Jesus. Perhaps because of the difference in pronunciation, many people may not be aware that when they hear a Muslim talking about Eissa , he is actually talking about Prophet Jesus.
The spelling of Eissa may take many forms – Isa, Esa, Essa, and Eissa.
The Arabic language is written in Arabic characters, thus any transliteration system tries to reproduce the phonetic sound. No matter what the spelling, all indicate Jesus, the Messenger of God.
Jesus and his people spoke Aramaic, a language from the Semitic family.
Spoken by more than 300 million people throughout the Middle East, North Africa and the Horn of Africa, Semitic languages include, among others, Arabic and Hebrew.
The use of the word Eissa is actually a closer translation of the Aramaic word for Jesus – Eeshu. In Hebrew this translates to Yeshua.
Jesus and even the earliest Christians spoke Aramaic. Much of the Old Testament, such as the Book of Daniel, was originally in Aramaic though a large bulk of those codices are lost forever. Neither the Greek of the Textus Receptus upon which the New Testament is based, nor the Hebrew of the standardized Tanach upon which the Old Testament is loosely based were their native tongues.
"..portions of the Old Testament books of Daniel and Ezra are written in Aramaic...Jesus and the Apostles also spoke this language."
"In the early Christian era, Aramaic divided into east and West varieties. West Aramaic dialects includ Nabataean (formerly spoken in parts of Arabia), Palmyrene (spoken in Palmyra, which was northeast of Damascus), Palestinian-Christian, and Judeo-Aramaic. West Aramaic is still spoken in a small number of villages in Lebanon."
[Encyclopedia Britannica, Reference Index I, "Aramaic Language", page 476]
Jesus spoke Aramaic. Thus, the New Testament would have to be dependent upon it. Much of the Old Testament was in Aramaic as well, and the earliest Christian societies throughout Arabia from Palestine, to Syria, to Nabataea spoke Aramaic. So what is Jesus' name in Aramaic?
"Eeshu M'sheekha" meaning "Jesus the Messiah".
- Syriac. Syriac is a late variant of Aramaic widespread in Christendom, thus coined "Christian Aramaic".
- Aramaic. Taken directly from the "Peshitta".
- Aramaic. Peshitta; with diacritical marks.
The "Peshitta" is the Aramaic New Testament and closely resembles the language of Jesus.
Thus, Jesus would have even called himself "Eesho" or more specifically "Eesa" since the Northern Palestinian Jews pronounced the letter "shin" as "seen". Interestingly enough we find a few striking parallels in Biblical Hebrew and Aramaic which tell volumes and uncover astounding facts.
"..portions of the Old Testament books of Daniel and Ezra are written in Aramaic...Jesus and the Apostles also spoke this language."
"In the early Christian era, Aramaic divided into east and West varieties. West Aramaic dialects includ Nabataean (formerly spoken in parts of Arabia), Palmyrene (spoken in Palmyra, which was northeast of Damascus), Palestinian-Christian, and Judeo-Aramaic. West Aramaic is still spoken in a small number of villages in Lebanon."
[Encyclopedia Britannica, Reference Index I, "Aramaic Language", page 476]
Jesus spoke Aramaic. Thus, the New Testament would have to be dependent upon it. Much of the Old Testament was in Aramaic as well, and the earliest Christian societies throughout Arabia from Palestine, to Syria, to Nabataea spoke Aramaic. So what is Jesus' name in Aramaic?
"Eeshu M'sheekha" meaning "Jesus the Messiah".
- Syriac. Syriac is a late variant of Aramaic widespread in Christendom, thus coined "Christian Aramaic".
- Aramaic. Taken directly from the "Peshitta".
- Aramaic. Peshitta; with diacritical marks.
The "Peshitta" is the Aramaic New Testament and closely resembles the language of Jesus.
Thus, Jesus would have even called himself "Eesho" or more specifically "Eesa" since the Northern Palestinian Jews pronounced the letter "shin" as "seen". Interestingly enough we find a few striking parallels in Biblical Hebrew and Aramaic which tell volumes and uncover astounding facts.
ʿĪsā is used as well by several Christian groups in Muslim countries. A 14th-century Persian translation of Matthew, one of the earliest surviving Persian manuscripts of the scripture, uses ʿĪsā.[17] Later translations in other languages also follow suit. Some modern Evangelical translations also use Isa, such as David Owen's Life of Christ (Arabic 1987).
https://www.rentfoxxy.com/forum/79351e-issa-meaning-in-arabic
https://www.rentfoxxy.com/forum/79351e-issa-meaning-in-arabic
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#السؤال_التاسع_والثمانون_من_كتب_القرآن_وكيف_تم_تجميعه.
🌸Who wrote the Qur’an and how was it put together?.
Firstly:
Allaah has guaranteed to preserve this Qur’aan Himself. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Verily, We, it is We Who have sent down the Dhikr (i.e. the Qur’aan) and surely, We will guard it (from corruption)”
[al-Hijr 15:9]
Secondly:
Literacy was not widespread among the Arabs. Allaah described them in such terms when He said (interpretation of the meaning):
“He it is Who sent among the unlettered ones a Messenger (Muhammad) from among themselves”
[al-Jumu’ah 63:2]
They used to memorize the Qur’aan by heart, and a few of them used to write down some verses or soorahs on animal skins, thin white stones and the like.
Thirdly:
At first the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) forbade the writing of anything other than the Qur'aan, and he forbade them to write down his words for a while, so that the Sahaabah would focus on memorizing the Qur' aan and writing it down, and so that the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) would not be confused with the words of Allaah, and so the Qur'aan was protected from anything being added or taken away.
Fourthly:
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) appointed a group of his companions who were trustworthy and knowledgeable to write down the revelation. They are known in their biographies as those who wrote down the Revelation, such as the four Caliphs, 'Abd-Allaah ibn 'Amr ibn al-'Aas, Mu'aawiyah ibn Abi Sufyaan, Zayd ibn Thaabit and others – may Allaah be pleased with them all.
Fifthly:
The Qur’aan was revealed in seven dialects as was narrated in the saheeh hadeeth of ‘Umar ibn al-Khattaab (may Allaah be pleased with him) from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). This was narrated by al-Bukhaari (2287) and Muslim (818); these were the dialects of the Arabs which were known for their eloquence.
Sixthly:
The Qur’aan continued to be preserved in the hearts of the Sahaabah who had memorized it, and on the skins and other materials until the time of the caliph Abu Bakr al-Siddeeq (may Allaah be pleased with him).
he consulted the senior Sahaabah about compiling the Qur’aan in a single book so that it would remain preserved and would not be lost. He entrusted this mission to the chief of memorizers Zayd ibn Thaabit
Then the complete manuscript (copy) of the Qur’aan remained with Abu Bakr until he died, then with 'Umar until the end of his life, and then with Hafsah, the daughter of 'Umar (may Allaah be pleased with him).
The Sahaabi Zayd ibn Thaabit (may Allaah be pleased with him) knew the Qur’aan by heart but he was methodical in his confirmation; he would not agree to write down any verse until two of the Sahaabah testified that they had heard it from the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him).
This Mus-haf (written copy of the Qur’aan) remained in the hands of the caliphs until the time of the Rightly-Guided Caliph ‘Uthmaan ibn ‘Affaan (may Allaah be pleased with him).
The Sahaabah (may Allaah be pleased with them) had dispersed to different lands, and they used to recite the Qur'aan according to what they had heard of the seven recitations from the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) , and each of their students used to recite according to what he had heard from his shaykh.
So they thought that they should unite the people in following one recitation, which was in the dialect of Quraysh in which the Qur’aan had first been revealed, so as to dispel any disputes and resolve the matter. ‘Uthmaan (may Allaah be pleased with him) was consulted, and he agreed with this opinion.
Hafsah sent it to 'Uthmaan. Then 'Uthmaan ordered Zayd ibn Thaabit, 'Abdullah ibn al-Zubayr, Sa’eed ibn al-‘Aas and ‘Abd al-Rahmaan ibn Haarith ibn Hishaam to copy out the manuscripts. 'Uthmaan said to the three men who were from Quraysh (the tribe of which the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was a member)
🌸Who wrote the Qur’an and how was it put together?.
Firstly:
Allaah has guaranteed to preserve this Qur’aan Himself. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Verily, We, it is We Who have sent down the Dhikr (i.e. the Qur’aan) and surely, We will guard it (from corruption)”
[al-Hijr 15:9]
Secondly:
Literacy was not widespread among the Arabs. Allaah described them in such terms when He said (interpretation of the meaning):
“He it is Who sent among the unlettered ones a Messenger (Muhammad) from among themselves”
[al-Jumu’ah 63:2]
They used to memorize the Qur’aan by heart, and a few of them used to write down some verses or soorahs on animal skins, thin white stones and the like.
Thirdly:
At first the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) forbade the writing of anything other than the Qur'aan, and he forbade them to write down his words for a while, so that the Sahaabah would focus on memorizing the Qur' aan and writing it down, and so that the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) would not be confused with the words of Allaah, and so the Qur'aan was protected from anything being added or taken away.
Fourthly:
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) appointed a group of his companions who were trustworthy and knowledgeable to write down the revelation. They are known in their biographies as those who wrote down the Revelation, such as the four Caliphs, 'Abd-Allaah ibn 'Amr ibn al-'Aas, Mu'aawiyah ibn Abi Sufyaan, Zayd ibn Thaabit and others – may Allaah be pleased with them all.
Fifthly:
The Qur’aan was revealed in seven dialects as was narrated in the saheeh hadeeth of ‘Umar ibn al-Khattaab (may Allaah be pleased with him) from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). This was narrated by al-Bukhaari (2287) and Muslim (818); these were the dialects of the Arabs which were known for their eloquence.
Sixthly:
The Qur’aan continued to be preserved in the hearts of the Sahaabah who had memorized it, and on the skins and other materials until the time of the caliph Abu Bakr al-Siddeeq (may Allaah be pleased with him).
he consulted the senior Sahaabah about compiling the Qur’aan in a single book so that it would remain preserved and would not be lost. He entrusted this mission to the chief of memorizers Zayd ibn Thaabit
Then the complete manuscript (copy) of the Qur’aan remained with Abu Bakr until he died, then with 'Umar until the end of his life, and then with Hafsah, the daughter of 'Umar (may Allaah be pleased with him).
The Sahaabi Zayd ibn Thaabit (may Allaah be pleased with him) knew the Qur’aan by heart but he was methodical in his confirmation; he would not agree to write down any verse until two of the Sahaabah testified that they had heard it from the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him).
This Mus-haf (written copy of the Qur’aan) remained in the hands of the caliphs until the time of the Rightly-Guided Caliph ‘Uthmaan ibn ‘Affaan (may Allaah be pleased with him).
The Sahaabah (may Allaah be pleased with them) had dispersed to different lands, and they used to recite the Qur'aan according to what they had heard of the seven recitations from the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) , and each of their students used to recite according to what he had heard from his shaykh.
So they thought that they should unite the people in following one recitation, which was in the dialect of Quraysh in which the Qur’aan had first been revealed, so as to dispel any disputes and resolve the matter. ‘Uthmaan (may Allaah be pleased with him) was consulted, and he agreed with this opinion.
Hafsah sent it to 'Uthmaan. Then 'Uthmaan ordered Zayd ibn Thaabit, 'Abdullah ibn al-Zubayr, Sa’eed ibn al-‘Aas and ‘Abd al-Rahmaan ibn Haarith ibn Hishaam to copy out the manuscripts. 'Uthmaan said to the three men who were from Quraysh (the tribe of which the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was a member)
, “In case you disagree with Zayd ibn Thaabit on any point in the Qur'aan , then write it in the dialect of Quraysh, for the Qur'aan was revealed in their tongue." They did so, and when they had written many copies, 'Uthmaan returned the original manuscripts to Hafsah.
'Uthmaan sent to every Muslim province one copy of what they had copied
The Qur’aan has remained and will remain narrated from generation to generation and preserved in men's hearts until the Day of Resurrection. This is how Allaah has preserved His Book, in confirmation of the verse in which He says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Verily, We, it is We Who have sent down the Dhikr (i.e. the Qur’aan) and surely, We will guard it (from corruption)”
[al-Hijr 15:9]
And Allaah knows best.
Show on Islam Q&A website.
'Uthmaan sent to every Muslim province one copy of what they had copied
The Qur’aan has remained and will remain narrated from generation to generation and preserved in men's hearts until the Day of Resurrection. This is how Allaah has preserved His Book, in confirmation of the verse in which He says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Verily, We, it is We Who have sent down the Dhikr (i.e. the Qur’aan) and surely, We will guard it (from corruption)”
[al-Hijr 15:9]
And Allaah knows best.
Show on Islam Q&A website.
Forwarded from Question and Answer (Wafaa Fawzi)
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#السؤال_التسعون_لماذا_المرآة_نصف_الرجل_في_الميراث.
Under Islamic law, why is a woman’s share of the inherited wealth only half that of a man?
Answer:
🔹️1. Inheritance in the Qur'an
The Glorious Qur’an contains specific and detailed guidance regarding the
division of the inherited wealth, among the rightful beneficiaries. The Qur’anic
verses that contain guidance regarding inheritance are:
* Surah Baqarah, chapter 2 verse 180
* Surah Baqarah, chapter 2 verse 240
* Surah Nisa, chapter 4 verse 7-9
* Surah Nisa, chapter 4 verse 19
* Surah Nisa, chapter 4 verse 33 and
* Surah Maidah, chapter 5 verse 106-108
🔹️2. Specific share of inheritance for the relatives
There are three verses in the Qur’an that broadly describe the share of close
relatives i.e. Surah Nisah chapter 4 verses 11, 12 and 176. The translation of these verses are as follows:
“Allah (thus) directs you as regards your children’s (inheritance): to the
male, a portion equal to that of two females, if only daughters, two or more, their share is two-thirds of the inheritance; If only one, her share is a half.
For parents, a sixth share of the inheritance to each, if the deceased left children; If no children, and the parents are the (only) heirs, the mother has a third; if the deceased left brothers (or sisters) the mother has a sixth. (The distribution in all cases is) after the payment of legacies and debts. Ye know not whether your parents or your children are nearest to you in benefit.
These are settled portions ordained by Allah; and Allah is All-Knowing, All- Wise. In what your wives leave, your share is half. If they leave no child; but if they leave a child, ye get a fourth; after payment of legacies and debts. In what ye leave, their share is a fourth, if ye leave no child; but if ye leave a child, they get an eight; after payment of legacies and debts. If the man or woman whose inheritance is in question, has left neither ascendants nor descendants, but has left a brother or a sister, each one of the two gets a sixth; but if more than two, they share in a third; after payment of legacies and debts; so that no loss is caused (to anyone). Thus it is ordained by Allah; and Allah is All-Knowing Most Forbearing” [Al-Qur’an 4:11-12]
“They ask thee for a legal decision. Say: Allah directs (them) about those
who leave no descendants or ascendants as heirs. If it is a man that dies, leaving a sister but no child, she shall have half the inheritance. If (such a deceased was) a woman who left no child, Her brother takes her inheritance. If there are two sisters, they shall have two thirds of the inheritance (between them). If there are brothers and sisters, (they share), the male having twice the share of the female. Thus doth Allah (Subhaanahu Wa Ta’ala) makes clear to you (His knowledge of all things). [Al-Qur’an 4:176]
🔹️3. Female some times inherits same or more than male counter part
In most of the cases, a woman inherits half of what her male counterpart inherits. However, this is not always the case. In case the deceased has left no ascendant or descendent but has left the uterine brother and sister, each of the two inherit one sixth.
If the deceased has left children, both the parents that is mother and father get an equal share and inherit one sixth each. In certain cases, a woman can also inherit a share that is double that of the male. If the deceased is a woman who has left no children, brothers or sisters and is survived only by her husband, mother and father, the husband inherits half the property while the mother inherits one third
and the father the remaining one sixth. In this particular case, the mother inherits a share that is double that of the father.
🔹️4. Female usually inherits half the share of that of the male counter part
It is true that as a general rule, in most cases, the female inherits a share that is half that of the male. For instance in the following cases:
1. daughter inherits half of what the son inherits,
2. wife inherits 1/8th and husband 1/4th if the deceased has no children.
Under Islamic law, why is a woman’s share of the inherited wealth only half that of a man?
Answer:
🔹️1. Inheritance in the Qur'an
The Glorious Qur’an contains specific and detailed guidance regarding the
division of the inherited wealth, among the rightful beneficiaries. The Qur’anic
verses that contain guidance regarding inheritance are:
* Surah Baqarah, chapter 2 verse 180
* Surah Baqarah, chapter 2 verse 240
* Surah Nisa, chapter 4 verse 7-9
* Surah Nisa, chapter 4 verse 19
* Surah Nisa, chapter 4 verse 33 and
* Surah Maidah, chapter 5 verse 106-108
🔹️2. Specific share of inheritance for the relatives
There are three verses in the Qur’an that broadly describe the share of close
relatives i.e. Surah Nisah chapter 4 verses 11, 12 and 176. The translation of these verses are as follows:
“Allah (thus) directs you as regards your children’s (inheritance): to the
male, a portion equal to that of two females, if only daughters, two or more, their share is two-thirds of the inheritance; If only one, her share is a half.
For parents, a sixth share of the inheritance to each, if the deceased left children; If no children, and the parents are the (only) heirs, the mother has a third; if the deceased left brothers (or sisters) the mother has a sixth. (The distribution in all cases is) after the payment of legacies and debts. Ye know not whether your parents or your children are nearest to you in benefit.
These are settled portions ordained by Allah; and Allah is All-Knowing, All- Wise. In what your wives leave, your share is half. If they leave no child; but if they leave a child, ye get a fourth; after payment of legacies and debts. In what ye leave, their share is a fourth, if ye leave no child; but if ye leave a child, they get an eight; after payment of legacies and debts. If the man or woman whose inheritance is in question, has left neither ascendants nor descendants, but has left a brother or a sister, each one of the two gets a sixth; but if more than two, they share in a third; after payment of legacies and debts; so that no loss is caused (to anyone). Thus it is ordained by Allah; and Allah is All-Knowing Most Forbearing” [Al-Qur’an 4:11-12]
“They ask thee for a legal decision. Say: Allah directs (them) about those
who leave no descendants or ascendants as heirs. If it is a man that dies, leaving a sister but no child, she shall have half the inheritance. If (such a deceased was) a woman who left no child, Her brother takes her inheritance. If there are two sisters, they shall have two thirds of the inheritance (between them). If there are brothers and sisters, (they share), the male having twice the share of the female. Thus doth Allah (Subhaanahu Wa Ta’ala) makes clear to you (His knowledge of all things). [Al-Qur’an 4:176]
🔹️3. Female some times inherits same or more than male counter part
In most of the cases, a woman inherits half of what her male counterpart inherits. However, this is not always the case. In case the deceased has left no ascendant or descendent but has left the uterine brother and sister, each of the two inherit one sixth.
If the deceased has left children, both the parents that is mother and father get an equal share and inherit one sixth each. In certain cases, a woman can also inherit a share that is double that of the male. If the deceased is a woman who has left no children, brothers or sisters and is survived only by her husband, mother and father, the husband inherits half the property while the mother inherits one third
and the father the remaining one sixth. In this particular case, the mother inherits a share that is double that of the father.
🔹️4. Female usually inherits half the share of that of the male counter part
It is true that as a general rule, in most cases, the female inherits a share that is half that of the male. For instance in the following cases:
1. daughter inherits half of what the son inherits,
2. wife inherits 1/8th and husband 1/4th if the deceased has no children.
3. Wife inherits 1/4th and husband 1/2 if the deceased has children
4. If the deceased has no ascendant or descendent, the sister inherits a share that is half that of the brother.
5. Male inherits double than the female because he financially supports the
family In Islam a woman has no financial obligation and the economical responsibility
lies on the shoulders of the man. Before a woman is married it is the duty of the father or brother to look after the lodging, boarding, clothing and other financial requirements of the woman. After she is married it is the duty of the husband or the son. Islam holds the man financially responsible for fulfilling the needs of his family. In order to do be able to fulfill the responsibility the men get double the share of the inheritance. For example, if a man dies leaving about One Hundred and Fifty Thousand Rupees, for the children (i.e one son and one
daughter) the son inherits One Hundred Thousand rupees and the daughter only Fifty Thousand rupees. Out of the one hundred thousand which the son inherits, as his duty towards his family, he may have to spend on them almost the entire
amount or say about eighty thousand and thus he has a small percentage of inheritance, say about twenty thousand, left for himself. On the other hand, the daughter, who inherits fifty thousand is not bound to spend a single penny on anybody. She can keep the entire amount for herself. Would you prefer inheriting one hundred thousand rupees and spending eighty thousand from it, or inheriting fifty thousand rupees and having the entire amount to yourself?
4. If the deceased has no ascendant or descendent, the sister inherits a share that is half that of the brother.
5. Male inherits double than the female because he financially supports the
family In Islam a woman has no financial obligation and the economical responsibility
lies on the shoulders of the man. Before a woman is married it is the duty of the father or brother to look after the lodging, boarding, clothing and other financial requirements of the woman. After she is married it is the duty of the husband or the son. Islam holds the man financially responsible for fulfilling the needs of his family. In order to do be able to fulfill the responsibility the men get double the share of the inheritance. For example, if a man dies leaving about One Hundred and Fifty Thousand Rupees, for the children (i.e one son and one
daughter) the son inherits One Hundred Thousand rupees and the daughter only Fifty Thousand rupees. Out of the one hundred thousand which the son inherits, as his duty towards his family, he may have to spend on them almost the entire
amount or say about eighty thousand and thus he has a small percentage of inheritance, say about twenty thousand, left for himself. On the other hand, the daughter, who inherits fifty thousand is not bound to spend a single penny on anybody. She can keep the entire amount for herself. Would you prefer inheriting one hundred thousand rupees and spending eighty thousand from it, or inheriting fifty thousand rupees and having the entire amount to yourself?
Forwarded from Question and Answer (Wafaa Fawzi)
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#السؤال_الحادي_والتسعون_شبهة_الذبح_علي_الطريقة_الإسلامية.
🌸 The misconception about Zabiha according to the method of Islam.
One may consider the following points, which prove that the Zabiha method is not only humane but also scientifically the best:
1. Islamic method of slaughtering animal Zakkaytum is a verb derived from the root word Zakah (to purify). Its infinitive is Tazkiyah which means purification. The Islamic mode of slaughtering an animal requires the following conditions to be met:
a:The animal has to be slaughtered with a sharp object (knife) and in a fast way so that the pain of slaughter is minimised.
b: Cut wind pipe, throat and vessels of neck Zabiha is an Arabic word which means ‘slaughtered’. The ‘slaughtering’ is to be done by cutting the throat, windpipe and the blood vessels in the neck causing the animal’s death without cutting the spinal cord.
c: Blood should be drained .The blood has to be drained completely before the head is removed. The purpose is to drain out most of the blood which would serve as a good culture medium for micro organisms. The spinal cord must not be cut because the nerve fibres to the heart could be damaged during the process causing cardiac arrest, stagnating the blood in the blood vessels.
2. Blood is a good media of germs, bacteria, toxins, etc. Therefore the Muslim way of slaughtering is more hygienic as most of the blood containing germs, bacteria, toxins, etc. that are the cause of several diseases are eliminated.
3. Meat slaughtered in an Islamic way remains fresh for a longer time due to
deficiency of blood in the meat as compared to other methods of slaughtering.
4. Animal does not feel pain .
The swift cutting of vessels of the neck disconnects the flow of blood to the nerve of the brain responsible for pain. Thus the animal does not feel pain. While dying, the animal struggles, writhers, shakes and kicks, not due to pain, but due to the contraction and relaxation of the muscles defecient in blood and due to the flow of blood out of the body.
Killing the animal by clubbing‚ goring or any other method other than cutting the neck with a sharp knife is not acceptable.
Animals heading to slaughter should not see other animals killed ahead of them‚ should not see the blade or it being sharpened in preparation‚ and should not be placed in an uncomfortable position immediately before the cut.
Eating foods that are permissible and Halal helps us avoid health risks associated with non-Halal foods.All of God’s commandments are meant not only for his worship, but they also incur a benefit, either spiritual or physical, for all those who follow them.
🌸 The misconception about Zabiha according to the method of Islam.
One may consider the following points, which prove that the Zabiha method is not only humane but also scientifically the best:
1. Islamic method of slaughtering animal Zakkaytum is a verb derived from the root word Zakah (to purify). Its infinitive is Tazkiyah which means purification. The Islamic mode of slaughtering an animal requires the following conditions to be met:
a:The animal has to be slaughtered with a sharp object (knife) and in a fast way so that the pain of slaughter is minimised.
b: Cut wind pipe, throat and vessels of neck Zabiha is an Arabic word which means ‘slaughtered’. The ‘slaughtering’ is to be done by cutting the throat, windpipe and the blood vessels in the neck causing the animal’s death without cutting the spinal cord.
c: Blood should be drained .The blood has to be drained completely before the head is removed. The purpose is to drain out most of the blood which would serve as a good culture medium for micro organisms. The spinal cord must not be cut because the nerve fibres to the heart could be damaged during the process causing cardiac arrest, stagnating the blood in the blood vessels.
2. Blood is a good media of germs, bacteria, toxins, etc. Therefore the Muslim way of slaughtering is more hygienic as most of the blood containing germs, bacteria, toxins, etc. that are the cause of several diseases are eliminated.
3. Meat slaughtered in an Islamic way remains fresh for a longer time due to
deficiency of blood in the meat as compared to other methods of slaughtering.
4. Animal does not feel pain .
The swift cutting of vessels of the neck disconnects the flow of blood to the nerve of the brain responsible for pain. Thus the animal does not feel pain. While dying, the animal struggles, writhers, shakes and kicks, not due to pain, but due to the contraction and relaxation of the muscles defecient in blood and due to the flow of blood out of the body.
Killing the animal by clubbing‚ goring or any other method other than cutting the neck with a sharp knife is not acceptable.
Animals heading to slaughter should not see other animals killed ahead of them‚ should not see the blade or it being sharpened in preparation‚ and should not be placed in an uncomfortable position immediately before the cut.
Eating foods that are permissible and Halal helps us avoid health risks associated with non-Halal foods.All of God’s commandments are meant not only for his worship, but they also incur a benefit, either spiritual or physical, for all those who follow them.
Forwarded from Question and Answer (Wafaa Fawzi)
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VIEW IN TELEGRAM
#السؤال_الثاني_والتسعون_دليل_علي_صدق_نبوة_محمد_ﷺ_من_الإنجيل.
The evidence of prophethood Muhammad from Bible.
Jeremiah 23:34 ►
If a prophet or a priest or anyone else claims, 'This is a message from the LORD,' I will punish them and their household.
Deuteronomy 18:20 ►
20 But a prophet who presumes to speak in my name anything I have not commanded, or a prophet who speaks in the name of other gods, is to be put to death.”
Prophet Muhammad peace and blessings be upon him preached islam as a prophet from God for 23 years, why that punishment wasn't applied to him within this period ,by the the God of the Church ???
The evidence of prophethood Muhammad from Bible.
Jeremiah 23:34 ►
If a prophet or a priest or anyone else claims, 'This is a message from the LORD,' I will punish them and their household.
Deuteronomy 18:20 ►
20 But a prophet who presumes to speak in my name anything I have not commanded, or a prophet who speaks in the name of other gods, is to be put to death.”
Prophet Muhammad peace and blessings be upon him preached islam as a prophet from God for 23 years, why that punishment wasn't applied to him within this period ,by the the God of the Church ???
2_
WHAT IS THE CRITERIA FOR A TRUE PROPHET?
Rays from the Same Lamp
A natural question to ask someone who believes in any prophet is: ‘What are the criteria for your belief in him?’ Reasonable criteria would be:
(i) evidence for his claim.
(ii) consistency in his teachings (about God, afterlife, and similar issues of belief)
(iii) similarity to the teachings of earlier prophets.
(iv) integrity: he must be a man of high morals.
The Bible lends support to our criteria. The Old Testament says of a false prophet:
1. Pretends to be sent by God.
2. Described as covetous drunken, immoral and profane, influenced by evil spirits.
3. Prophesizes falsely, lies in the name of the Lord, out of his own heart,in the name of false gods.
4. Often practices divination and witchcraft.
5. Leads people into error, makes them forget God’s name, teaches profaneness and sin,and oppresses.
The New Testament says of Jesus’ criteria to identify false prophets:
"Beware of false prophets, which come to you in sheep’s clothing, but inwardly they are ravening wolves. We shall know them by their fruits. Do men gather grapes of thorns, or figs of thistles? Even so every good tree bringeth forth good fruit; but a corrupt tree bringeth forth evil fruit."
We learn the following:
(i) prophecy will continue after Jesus.
(ii) beware of false prophets.
(iii) the criteria to identify a false prophet is his fruits, that is his works or deeds.
As stated earlier, Muhammad claimed unequivocally, ‘I am God’s Messenger.’ If a person evaluates his claim on the above criteria, he will find it meets the criteria completely.
In Islamic doctrine, all prophets constitute a spiritual fraternity of brothers with a single ‘father,’ but different ‘mothers.’ The ‘father’ is prophethood and unity of God, the ‘mothers’ are the different Laws they brought. Emphasizing the spiritual fraternity of all prophets, Prophet Muhammad said:
"I am the closest of all people to the son of Mary (Jesus). The prophets are paternal brothers, their mothers are different, but their religion is one." (Saheeh Al-Bukhari, Saheeh Muslim)
All prophets are ‘rays’ from the same ‘Lamp’: the central message of all prophets throughout ages was to dedicate worship to God only. That’s why Islam views denying a single prophet as equivalent to denying them all. The Quran states:
"Indeed, those who deny God and His messengers, and wish to separate God from His messengers, saying: ‘We believe in some but reject others’ and want to pursue a path in-between - it is they, they who are truly denying the truth: and for those who deny the truth We have readied shameful suffering. But as for those who believe in God and His messengers and make no distinction between any of them - unto them, in time, will He grant their rewards [in full]. And God is indeed much-forgiving, a dispenser of grace." (Quran 4:150-152)
Denying the prophethood of Muhammad is tantamount to denying all prophets. The prophethood of Muhammad is known just like the prophethood of Moses and Jesus is known: the numerous reports of their miracles that have reached us. The Book brought by Muhammad (the Quran) is fully preserved, and His Law is complete and applicable to today’s world. Moses brought the Law and justice, Jesus brought grace and flexibility. Muhammad combined between the Law of Moses and the grace of Jesus.
If someone were to say, ‘he was an imposter,’ others are more fit to be charged with this accusation. Hence, denying Muhammad is denying one’s own prophets. If a reasonable person looks at two bright stars, he must acknowledge both are stars, he cannot say to one, ‘Yes, this one is a bright star,’ but deny the other! Doing so would be denying reality and a lie.
Make a table of all the prophets you believe in. Start from the first one to the last one you believe in. Answer the following questions:
What is the evidence I believe he was a true prophet?
What was the mission of the prophet in his own words?
Did he bring a Law? Is his Law applicable today?
WHAT IS THE CRITERIA FOR A TRUE PROPHET?
Rays from the Same Lamp
A natural question to ask someone who believes in any prophet is: ‘What are the criteria for your belief in him?’ Reasonable criteria would be:
(i) evidence for his claim.
(ii) consistency in his teachings (about God, afterlife, and similar issues of belief)
(iii) similarity to the teachings of earlier prophets.
(iv) integrity: he must be a man of high morals.
The Bible lends support to our criteria. The Old Testament says of a false prophet:
1. Pretends to be sent by God.
2. Described as covetous drunken, immoral and profane, influenced by evil spirits.
3. Prophesizes falsely, lies in the name of the Lord, out of his own heart,in the name of false gods.
4. Often practices divination and witchcraft.
5. Leads people into error, makes them forget God’s name, teaches profaneness and sin,and oppresses.
The New Testament says of Jesus’ criteria to identify false prophets:
"Beware of false prophets, which come to you in sheep’s clothing, but inwardly they are ravening wolves. We shall know them by their fruits. Do men gather grapes of thorns, or figs of thistles? Even so every good tree bringeth forth good fruit; but a corrupt tree bringeth forth evil fruit."
We learn the following:
(i) prophecy will continue after Jesus.
(ii) beware of false prophets.
(iii) the criteria to identify a false prophet is his fruits, that is his works or deeds.
As stated earlier, Muhammad claimed unequivocally, ‘I am God’s Messenger.’ If a person evaluates his claim on the above criteria, he will find it meets the criteria completely.
In Islamic doctrine, all prophets constitute a spiritual fraternity of brothers with a single ‘father,’ but different ‘mothers.’ The ‘father’ is prophethood and unity of God, the ‘mothers’ are the different Laws they brought. Emphasizing the spiritual fraternity of all prophets, Prophet Muhammad said:
"I am the closest of all people to the son of Mary (Jesus). The prophets are paternal brothers, their mothers are different, but their religion is one." (Saheeh Al-Bukhari, Saheeh Muslim)
All prophets are ‘rays’ from the same ‘Lamp’: the central message of all prophets throughout ages was to dedicate worship to God only. That’s why Islam views denying a single prophet as equivalent to denying them all. The Quran states:
"Indeed, those who deny God and His messengers, and wish to separate God from His messengers, saying: ‘We believe in some but reject others’ and want to pursue a path in-between - it is they, they who are truly denying the truth: and for those who deny the truth We have readied shameful suffering. But as for those who believe in God and His messengers and make no distinction between any of them - unto them, in time, will He grant their rewards [in full]. And God is indeed much-forgiving, a dispenser of grace." (Quran 4:150-152)
Denying the prophethood of Muhammad is tantamount to denying all prophets. The prophethood of Muhammad is known just like the prophethood of Moses and Jesus is known: the numerous reports of their miracles that have reached us. The Book brought by Muhammad (the Quran) is fully preserved, and His Law is complete and applicable to today’s world. Moses brought the Law and justice, Jesus brought grace and flexibility. Muhammad combined between the Law of Moses and the grace of Jesus.
If someone were to say, ‘he was an imposter,’ others are more fit to be charged with this accusation. Hence, denying Muhammad is denying one’s own prophets. If a reasonable person looks at two bright stars, he must acknowledge both are stars, he cannot say to one, ‘Yes, this one is a bright star,’ but deny the other! Doing so would be denying reality and a lie.
Make a table of all the prophets you believe in. Start from the first one to the last one you believe in. Answer the following questions:
What is the evidence I believe he was a true prophet?
What was the mission of the prophet in his own words?
Did he bring a Law? Is his Law applicable today?
What scripture did he bring? How is its content and meaning?
Is the scripture preserved in the original language it was revealed in? Is it considered a literary authority, free of internal inconsistencies?
What do you know of his morals and integrity?
Compare all the prophets you have listed and then answer the same questions about Muhammad. Then ask yourself, ‘Can I honestly take Muhammad out of my list because he does not meet the criteria as other prophets?’ It will not take too much effort to discover that the evidence for Muhammad’s prophethood is stronger and more convincing.
A skeptic need consider what is so unusual about Muhammad’s claim to be a prophet? When did God declare an end to prophecy before him? Who decided that there would not be any more divine communication with human beings? With no evidence to block divine revelation, it is natural to accept a continuity of revelation:
"Indeed, We have sent you with the truth, as a bearer of glad tidings and a Warner: for there never was any community but a Warner has [lived and] passed away in its midst." (Quran 35:24)
"And We sent forth Our messengers, one after another: [and] every time their messenger came to a community, they gave him the lie: and so We caused them to follow one another [into the grave], and let them become [mere] tales: and so - away with the folk who would not believe!" (Quran 23:44)
This is true especially when the truth was perverted by Jews and Christians, the Christians claiming Jesus was the son of God and Jews calling him an illegitimate son of Joseph the Carpenter. Muhammad brought the truth: Jesus was God’s noble prophet born of a miraculous virgin birth. As a result, Muslims believe in Jesus and love him, neither going to the extreme like the Christians, nor disparaging him like the Jews.
Is the scripture preserved in the original language it was revealed in? Is it considered a literary authority, free of internal inconsistencies?
What do you know of his morals and integrity?
Compare all the prophets you have listed and then answer the same questions about Muhammad. Then ask yourself, ‘Can I honestly take Muhammad out of my list because he does not meet the criteria as other prophets?’ It will not take too much effort to discover that the evidence for Muhammad’s prophethood is stronger and more convincing.
A skeptic need consider what is so unusual about Muhammad’s claim to be a prophet? When did God declare an end to prophecy before him? Who decided that there would not be any more divine communication with human beings? With no evidence to block divine revelation, it is natural to accept a continuity of revelation:
"Indeed, We have sent you with the truth, as a bearer of glad tidings and a Warner: for there never was any community but a Warner has [lived and] passed away in its midst." (Quran 35:24)
"And We sent forth Our messengers, one after another: [and] every time their messenger came to a community, they gave him the lie: and so We caused them to follow one another [into the grave], and let them become [mere] tales: and so - away with the folk who would not believe!" (Quran 23:44)
This is true especially when the truth was perverted by Jews and Christians, the Christians claiming Jesus was the son of God and Jews calling him an illegitimate son of Joseph the Carpenter. Muhammad brought the truth: Jesus was God’s noble prophet born of a miraculous virgin birth. As a result, Muslims believe in Jesus and love him, neither going to the extreme like the Christians, nor disparaging him like the Jews.